MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution

Q.1. According to Hugo de Vries, speciation is due to
(a) accumulation of small variations
(b) intraspecific breeding
(c) inter specific breeding
(d) saltation

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.2. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.3. Which of the following is an example for link species?
(a) Lobe fish
(b) Dodo bird
(c) Sea weed
(d) Chimpanzee

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.4. Match the scientists listed under column ‘I’ with ideas listed column ‘II’.
Column I -Column II
A. Darwin -(i) Abiogenesis
B. Oparin -(ii) Use and disuse of organs
C. Lamarck -(iii) Continental drift theory
D. Wagner -(iv) Evolution by natural selection
(a) A-(i); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(b) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(c) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)
(d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.5. Stabilising selection favours
(a) only one extreme form of a trait
(b) both the extreme forms of a trait
(c) intermediate form of a trait
(d) none of these

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.6. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be
(a) 42%
(b) 49%
(c) 9%
(d) 58%

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.7. Disruptive selection favours
(a) only one extreme form of a trait
(b) both the extreme forms of a trait
(c) intermediate form of a trait
(d) none of these

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.8. Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia?
(a) Stabilising
(b) Directional
(c) Disruptive
(d) Artificial

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.9. The phenomenon of “Industrial melanism” demonstrates
(a) natural selection
(b) induced mutation
(c) genetic drift
(d) geographical isolation

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.10. Which is correct formula of Hardy-Weinberg’s law?
(a) p2 + pq + q2 = 0
(b) p2 + pq + q2 = 1
(c) p2 + pq + q2 = infinity
(d) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.11. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed as
(a) microevolution
(b) co-evolution
(c) convergent evolution
(d) divergent evolution.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.12. In 1953, S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions created include
(a) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
(b) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(c) high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
(d) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc.

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.13. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(a) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
(b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
(c) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental condition.
(d) crystallization of chemicals.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.14. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of
(a) vestigial organs
(b) retrogressive evolution
(c) analogous organs
(d) homologous organs.

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.15. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(a) de Vries – Natural selection
(b) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis
(c) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm.
(d) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.16. Darwin’s Finches are an excellent example of
(a) brood parasitism
(b) connecting links
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) seasonal migration.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.17. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) natural selection
(c) migration
(d) divergent evolution.

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.18. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non-living
(c) life can arise from non-living things only.
(d) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.19. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) one organism has given rise to another
(b) they share a common ancestor
(c) they perform the same function
(d) they have biochemical similarities

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.20. Which of the following organs are homologous?
(a) Forelimbs of man and wings of bat
(b) Wings of Bat and bird
(c) Wings of Bat and Petrodactyl
(d) None of these

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.21. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from
(a) land to water
(b) dryland to wet land
(c) fresh water to sea water
(d) water to land

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.22. Homologous organs show
(a) natural selection
(b) divergent evolution
(c) parallel evolution
(d) convergent evolution

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.23. Analogous organs arise due to
(a) divergent evolution
(b) artificial selection
(c) genetic drift
(d) convergent evolution

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.24. Fossils are generally found in
(a) sedimentary rocks
(b) igneous rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) any type of rock

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.25. Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the
(a) development of embryo
(b) homologous organs
(c) fossils
(d) analogous organs.

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.26. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(a) the young ones are left on their own
(b) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(c) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
(d) the embryo takes a long time to develop

Answer Answer: (c)

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