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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Home » CBSE Class 12 Biology » MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology » MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Q.1. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(a) nucleus is removed
(b) ovaries are removed
(c) small part of fallopian tube is removed
(d) small part of vast deferens is removed

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.2. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
Choose the correct option.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.3. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.4. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.5. In-vitro fertilization involves transfer of ____ into the fallopian tube.
(a) embryo upto eight cell stage
(b) embryo of thirty two cell stage
(c) zygote
(d) either zygote or embryo up to eight cell stage

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.6. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.7. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
(i) it is almost irreversible
(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
(iii) it is a surgical procedure
(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.8. Which of the following STDs are caused by bacteria?
(a) AIDS and Genital Herpes
(b) Syphilis and gonorrhoea
(c) Trichomoniasis and scabies
(d) All of these

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.9. Which of the followings is example of hormone releasing IUDs ?
(a) CuT and Multilobed 375
(b) LNG-20 and Progestasert
(c) Lippes loop
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.10. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.11. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation

Answer Answer: (a)

Q.12. Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.13. IUDs release copper ion to
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) suppress mortility
(c) increase phagocytosis of sperm
(d) make uterus unsuitable for implantation.

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.14. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.15. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.16. Which of the followings is/are barrier method of contraception?
(a) Rhythm method/Periodic abstinence
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Withdrawal method
(d) None of these

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.17. Which of the followings is not a cause of population explosion in India?
(a) Better health care
(b) Increased IMR
(c) Decline MMR
(d) Increased population of reproductive age

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.18. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure.
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
formation.
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.19. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.20. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.21. Lactational amenorrhoea means
(a) absence of menstruation during pregnancy
(b) absence of menstruation during lactation
(c) excessive bleeding during menstruation
(d) no production and secretion of milk

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.22. Which of the following methods of contraception is most widely used?
(a) IUDs
(b) tubectomy
(c) cervical caps
(d) diaphragms

Answer Answer: (d)

Q.23. Amniocentesis is a process to
(a) grow of cells on the culture medium
(b) determine any hereditary disease of the embryo
(c) know about the diseases of the brain
(d) determine any disease of heart

Answer Answer: (b)

Q.24. Assisted Reproductive Technology involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the fallopian tube
(c) embryo into the fallopian tube
(d) zygote into the uterus

Answer Answer: (c)

Q.25. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is safe up to
(a) 8 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 18 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy

Answer Answer: (c)


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